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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

16.06.2025 05:45

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why does everyone hate Anthony Joshua so much? I get that he isn’t the best heavyweight boxer ever but people claim he’s a no skill fighter but he has an Olympic gold medal, a world championship, and beat Klitschko, a dominant force in boxing

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

How often do you watch the news on TV?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

I always feel very tired after I do some exercises, even after a night's sleep. What's the problem?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?